I have seen a couple of article's that point out that SCOTUS did not have the authority to rule on congressional election reform. After reading the constitution (as a layman) it states that congress is the only "body" in the government that can control its election process. It seems very clear and concise. Of course it was also clear about the 2000 presidential election debacle.
My questions are; If in fact, the Court overstepped their authority, what if anything could be done about it? Or, is this a case of the horse before the cart and we don't really need a constitutional amendment to change corporate person-hood because congress and the court have once again not read the rule book.